SCI228 Nutrition, Health and Wellness Week 8 Final Exam

Solutions – 35 multiple choice & 9 essays (as a pdf) – $29.99

Part 1

1. (TCO 10) Why is it crucial for the fetus to store adequate iron during gestation? (Points: 2)
Breast milk is low in iron.
Iron from breast milk and formula is poorly absorbed.
The fetus loses a great deal of iron during delivery.
During the first month of life, the infant is unable to store iron.

2. (TCO 8, 10) Which of the following enhances the absorption of iron? (Points: 2)
vitamin C

3. (TCO 10) Baby Billy is currently five months old. Since birth Billy’s weight and height have been in the 95th percentile on the growth charts. What does this tell you about Billy’s growth and development? (Points: 2)
Billy is underweight and is not growing well.
Billy is overweight and is consuming too many calories.
Billy is growing consistently; he may grow to be a larger, but healthy, adult.
Billy is growing normally; he may grow to be a smaller, but healthy, adult.

4. (TCO 9) In which of the following events would carbohydrate loading be the most beneficial? (Points: 2)
weight lifting
baseball game
cross country skiing
100-yard dash

5. (TCO 9) Impulsive, low self-esteem, seeks attention, extroverted, and erratic describe personality traits of: (Points: 2)
anorexia nervosa.
bulimia nervosa.
binge eating disorder.

6. (TCO 9) Which of the following BEST describes an episode of binge eating? (Points: 2)
eating a large amount of food in a short period of time
eating without regard to hunger
consuming food beyond feeling satiated (i.e., until overfull)
consuming any food outside the parameters of a self-imposed restrictive diet

7. (TCO 7) How do antioxidant vitamins stabilize free radicals? (Points: 2)
donate electrons or hydrogens
enzymatic destruction
break down and convert them to less damaging molecules

8. (TCO 7) Which of the following increases the RDA for vitamin C? (Points: 2)
smoking cigarettes
drinking alcohol
being a vegan
taking supplements of vitamin C

9. (TCO 7) Which of the following foods would be the best dietary source of pre-formed vitamin A? (Points: 2)

10. (TCO 8) Research studies have consistently demonstrated an association between a reduced risk of cancer and: (Points: 2)
the use of vitamin C supplements.
increased consumption of fruits and vegetables.
increased consumption of monounsaturated fatty acids.
the use of beta-carotene supplements.

11. (TCO 8) At what age does bone resorption generally begin to occur more rapidly than bone formation? (Points: 2)

12. (TCO 8) Which of the following is the most abundant mineral in our body? (Points: 2)

13. (TCO 8) Which research study demonstrated a link between vitamin E consumption and a decreased risk of heart disease in smokers? (Points: 2)
ADA Study
HOPE Study
NIH Study
ATBC Study

14. (TCO 8) In the United States, the leading cause of blindness in adults 55 years and older is: (Points: 2)
diabetes mellitus.
macular degeneration.

15. (TCO 7) Which is NOT a symptom of hypercalcemia? (Points: 2)
mental confusion
loss of appetite

16. (TCO 7,8) Mary G. is 60 years old and at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following dietary supplements would be the MOST helpful to minimize bone loss? (Points: 2)
magnesium and fluoride
vitamin K and fluoride
calcium and phosphorus
calcium and vitamin D

17. (TCO 7,8) Which of the following describes the main symptom(s) of beriberi? (Points: 2)
muscle wasting and nerve damage

18. (TCO 8) Which is NOT a symptom of low blood pressure? (Points: 2)
fainting spells

19. (TCO 8) Which of the following is TRUE? (Points: 2)
Water freely moves across cell membranes.
Water and electrolytes move across the cell membranes only through protein channels.
Electrolytes freely move across cell membranes.
Water and electrolytes cannot move across cell membranes.

20. (TCO 8) Which organ is primarily responsible for maintaining fluid balance? (Points: 2)
small intestine

21. (TCO 8) On average, which of the following individuals would have the highest percentage of body water? (Points: 2)
35-year-old overweight man
35-year-old overweight woman
35-year-old lean man
35-year-old lean woman

22. (TCO 8) The major cause of hypertension is: (Points: 2)
high intake of salt.
kidney disease.
sleep apnea.

23. (TCO 8) Why is hypertension often referred to as “the silent killer”? (Points: 2)
Physicians are just beginning to realize the consequence of this condition.
The symptoms of this condition are not obvious.
Many individuals are embarrassed and don’t like to admit they have this condition.
There are no effective treatments for this condition.

24. (TCO 5) What is the primary form of lipid in the diet? (Points: 2)

25. (TCO 5) Which of the following is a rich source of polyunsaturated fatty acids? (Points: 2)
corn oil
coconut oil
beef fat

26. (TCO 5) The process of adding hydrogen to an unsaturated fatty acid and creating a more solid fat is called: (Points: 2)

27. (TCO 6) Which of the following health problems has been associated with high protein intakes? (Points: 2)
elevated blood cholesterol
sickle cell anemia

28. (TCO 6) Protein digestion begins in the ________. (Points: 2)
small intestine

29. (TCO 6) Brenda is a reasonably healthy 19-year-old college student who is sedentary. She is 5’8″ tall and weighs 145 pounds. How many grams of protein would you recommend she consume each day? (Points: 2)
45 grams
53 grams
65 grams
73 grams

30. (TCO 4) Major fructose sources include: (Points: 2)
milk and cheese.
nuts and honey.
fruits and vegetables.
breads and cereals.

31. (TCO 4) The term complex carbohydrates refers to: (Points: 2)

32. (TCO 4) After a meal, which hormone is responsible for moving glucose into the body’s cells? (Points: 2)

33. (TCO 1) Which of the following statements does NOT describe the RDAs (Recommended Dietary Allowances)? (Points: 2)
The RDAs are estimated to meet the nutrient requirements of 97-98% of healthy individuals.
The RDAs are very helpful in determining the nutrient needs of hospitalized patients.
The RDAs were the first reference standards for determining nutrient needs in populations.
The RDAs are one set of standards included within the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs).

34. (TCO 1) What percentage of deaths in the United States can be attributed to unhealthy lifestyle behaviors such as smoking, alcohol misuse, physical inactivity, and unbalanced diet? (Points: 2)

35. (TCO 1) Which large vessel transports absorbed nutrients to the liver? (Points: 2)
portal vein
pulmonary vein
subclavian vein

Part 2

1. (TCO 6) Discuss the different reasons why an individual might choose to become a vegetarian. (Points: 20)

2. (TCO 8) Our kidneys are constantly trying to maintain fluid balance by either excreting or retaining fluid. How is fluid primarily lost by the body AND besides answering this question, please list the situations that can cause a signficant loss of fluid? (Points: 20)

3. (TCO 5,10) Jack has a strong family history of heart disease. What lifestyle factors are important for Jack to be aware of to decrease his cardiovascular disease risk? (Points: 20)

4. (TCO 8) Liz has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. Detail the lifestyle changes that are important for Liz to identify and modify in an effort to improve her situation. (Points: 20)

5. (TCO 9) Describe the factors that affect iron absorption in the body. Explain the chemistry of this absorption and tell why it may not work well in some cases. (Points: 20)

6. (TCO 10) Discuss the effect that family, media, genetics, and culture each have on the development of an eating disorder. (Points: 20)

7. (TCO 1) Discuss, in detail, the four basic rules of safe food handling. (Points: 20)

8. (TCO 10) Discuss ways to treat morning sickness during pregnancy. (Points: 20)

9. (TCO 2) Using the My Pyramid food guide, describe a healthy diet plan for a vegan. Include types and servings of food within the five categories of the pyramid as well as comment on nutrients that may need additional attention. (Points: 20)

Solutions – 35 multiple choice & 9 essays (as a pdf) – $29.99

HR333 Weekly Quizzes

Solutions (as a pdf) – $19.99

Week 1 Quiz
1. Which of the following statements about the Equal Pay Act of 1963 is true?
A. It permits differences in wages if the payment is based on seniority or merit.
B. The enforcement of the Act is the responsibility of the secretary of labor.
C. None of the above answers is true.
D. It allows an employer to attain compliance with the act by reducing the wage rate of any employee.
E. It prohibits discrimination in rates of pay on the basis of race.

2. Newspaper delivery involves the same few tasks each time, but there is considerable freedom in organizing and pacing the work. Based on this information we can say that this job is
A. low in scope and low in depth.
B. high in scope and high in depth.
C. high in scope but low in depth.
D. low in scope but high in depth.

3. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of an older workforce?
A. Reliability
B. Stability
C. Adaptability
D. Experience

4. Which of the following questions is to be avoided in a pre-employment inquiry?
A. Are you a citizen of the US?
B. Have you been convicted of a felony?
C. What type of discharge did you receive from the military?
D. What languages do you speak?
E. All of the above questions are permissible.

5. The job of receptionist requires similar skills, effort, and responsibility in different organizations so being a receptionist may be viewed as a(n) ____.
A. task
B. duty
C. occupation
D. element

6. The part of the affirmative action plan that analyzes minority group representation in all job categories; past and present hiring practices; and upgrades, promotions, and transfers is referred to as the ____.
A. balance scorecard
B. implementation analysis
C. utilization evaluation
D. bottom line analysis

7. The text identifies the primary function of the human resource department as that of
administering payroll.
A. hiring and firing employees.
B. providing support to operating managers on all human resource matters.
C. maintaining personnel records and engaging in human resource research.
D. telling operating managers what to do on all human resource matters.

8. A typical job description
A. lists the job duties and responsibilities.
B. explains organizational relationships that are relevant to the job.
C. includes a job specification.
D. is a formal, written document that describes the job as it is currently being performed.
E. A, B, and C only.
F. All of the answers above are correct.

9. The medical school of the University of California developed a special admissions program to increase the participation of minority students. Allan Bakke, a white male, was denied admission to the medical school in 1973 and 1974. Contending that minority students with lower grade averages and test scores were admitted under the special program, Bakke brought suit. The landmark case of Bakke v. University of California highlights which of the following concepts?
A. Disparate impact
B. Utilization evaluation
C. Reverse discrimination
D. Bottom line

10. In determining whether discrimination against groups protected by the law has occurred, the EEOC considers the relevant labor market to be
A. the nation in which the employer has its head office.
B. the geographical area from which the employer recruits.
C. all the cities in which the employer has its offices.
D. the geographic area within 30 miles of the employer.

11. Which of the following is a disadvantage in increasing organizational diversity?
A. More time is required to deal with interest groups
B. Responsiveness to diverse customer base
C. Tolerance of behavioral variety
D. Wider viewpoints
E. All of the above answers are disadvantages.

12. Which of the following statements regarding flextime is FALSE?
A. None of the above answers is false.
B. It refers to two or more part-time employees performing a job that would normally be held by one full-time person.
C. It allows employees to choose, within certain limitations, when they will begin and end their work day.
D. It can create communication and coordination problems for supervisors and managers.
E. It allows employees to accommodate different lifestyles and schedules.

13. The Civil Rights Act
A. provides protection to employees 60 years and above with regard to employee benefits.
B. permits protected groups to have a jury trial and sue for punitive damages if they can prove they are victims of intentional hiring or workplace discrimination.
C. places the burden of proof on plaintiffs with regard to intentional discrimination lawsuits.
D. places no upper limit on the amount of damages a victim of nonracial, intentional discrimination can collect.
E. None of the above answers is correct

14. _____ comes into play when an employer has a job specification that is neutral but excludes members of one sex at a higher rate than members of the other. The focus here is on the validity of stated job qualifications and their relationship to the work performed.
A. Occupational parity
B. Systemic parity
D. Business necessity
E. None of the above answers is correct.

15. Which of the following major HR functions would include forecasting HR requirements of the organization?
A. Development
B. Planning, recruitment, and selection
C. Compensation and benefits
D. Employee and labor relations

16. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Family and Medical Leave Act?
A. All of the above statements are true.
B. Employees can use this leave in the event of the birth, adoption, or placement for foster care of a child.
C. It enables qualified employees to take prolonged unpaid leave for family- and health-related reasons.
D. To qualify for the leave, employees must have worked for no less than 1,250 hours within the previous 12-month period.

17. Which of the following is true regarding the comparable worth theory?
A. Proponents of this theory believe that the Equal Pay Act offers protection to female workers.
B. This theory holds that entire classes of jobs are traditionally undervalued because they are held by women.
C. This theory takes into consideration wage rates paid by other employers.
D. This theory takes into consideration availability of qualified workers.

18. Which of the following is a guideline for effectively communicating human resource programs?
A. Disregard the cultural and global aspects of communication.
B. Avoid communicating in peer group or “privileged-class” language.
C. Avoid interpreting data when transmitting it.
D. Ignore the perceptual and behavioral aspects of communication.

19. The potential disadvantage of fatigue is typically associated with which of the following flexible work arrangements?
A. Condensed workweek
B. Flextime
C. Telecommuting
D. Job sharing

20. Which of the following is a valid bona fide occupational qualification exception?
A. Refusing to hire a woman because women are less capable of aggressive salesmanship.
B. Refusing to hire a man as a nursing home attendant because the job would require that he bathe elderly female clients.
C. Refusing to hire a woman as an airline pilot based on her age.
D. Refusing to hire a man because men are less capable of assembling intricate equipment.
E. B and D only
F. A and C only

21. For employers with 20 or more employees, the Age Discrimination in Employment Act was amended and now prohibits discrimination in employment against individuals who are
A. 18 years of age or older.
B. Between 35 and 70 years of age.
C. 40 years of age or older.
D. 21 years of age or older.

22. With respect to sexual harassment of employees in the workplace, an employer may also be responsible for the acts of nonemployees if the employer (or its agents or supervisory employees) knows or should have known of the conduct and fails to take immediate and appropriate corrective action.
A. True
B. False


Week 2 Quiz

1. _____ validity is established by identifying a predictor such as a test, administering the test to the entire pool of job applicants, hiring the people to fill the available jobs without considering their test scores, and later correlating the test scores with job performance to see if people with high test scores performed substantially better than those with low test scores.
A. Criterion-related
B. Concurrent
C. Predictive
D. Content

2. Organizational objectives should do all of the following EXCEPT
A. be stated in terms of expected results.
B. become the basis upon which the corporate mission is defined.
C. enhance the sense of purpose for members.
D. give direction to its members.
E. Organizational objectives do all of the above.

3. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) encourages organizations to avoid recruiting primarily by _____ and walk-ins.
A. employment agencies
B. campus recruitment
C. job posting and bidding
D. employee referral

4. How accurately a predictor actually predicts the criterion of job success, i.e., how well it predicts what it is supposed be predicting, is called
A. reliability.
B. validity.
C. usability.
D. adaptability.
E. none of the above.

5. Disclosure of a person’s race, color, national origin, or religion should be avoided on an application form because
A. such questions should be reserved for the interview time.
B. recording of such information can be proven as discriminatory.
C. it is illegal to address such matters in any circumstance.
D. recruitment ads specify that certain minorities need not apply.
E. B and C only.

6. _____ use(s) Web-based communities and hosted services such as social networking sites, blogs, and wikis.
A. Virtualizations
B. Web 2.0
C. Private clouds
D. Application programming interfaces

7. Which of the following is a disadvantage generally associated with an external source of recruitment?
A. A much smaller pool of talent is available.
B. It is always more difficult to hire technical or managerial people from the outside.
C. New ideas and innovations may be stifled.
D. New employees may need a longer adjustment or orientation period.
E. All of the above answers are disadvantages.

8. One of the best ways to encourage application form accuracy is to
A. include a statement that termination could result from inaccuracies.
B. make the applicant comfortable while filling out the form.
C. consider an application for selection only after reference checking.
D. insist that all responses are transcribed from the applicant’s resume.
E. A and B only.

9. Which of the following statements is true about strategy-linked HRP?
A. This concept holds that HRP should be handled solely by human resource personnel.
B. HR managers serve as consultants to line managers concerning the people-management implications of business objectives and strategies.
C. All managers should view human resource planning as one of their most important job responsibilities.
D. The commitment of top management is irrelevant in strategy-linked HRP.
E. All of the above answers are true.
F. A and D only.
G. B and C only.

10. Which of the following is a poor implementation procedure for job posting and bidding?
A. Avoiding specifying standards for selection in the notice.
B. Requiring job bidders to list their qualifications.
C. Refraining from external recruiting until a specified time has elapsed.
D. Including selection standards within the position notice.
E. None of the above answers is correct.

11. A word processing test given to applicants for a secretarial job is an example of a(n) _____ test.
A. proficiency
B. interest
C. personality
D. polygraph

12. _____ is the process of getting the right people in the places at the right time.
A. Workforce demand matching
B. Human resource management
C. Personnel inventory control
D. Human resource planning
E. None of the above

13. Generally, it can be said that those employees who were recruited using RJPs
A. have more job satisfaction.
B. lack the technical skills required for the job.
C. tend to exhibit poor job performance.
D. show low job survival rates.

14. The use of polygraph testing is
A. a widely permissible means of determining truth.
B. currently prohibited in most employment settings.
C. totally objective since the device interprets the readings.
D. growing in tandem with technological advances.
E. A and D only

15. Which of the following statements is NOT true about recruiting from internal sources?
A. An organization knows about the strengths and weaknesses of its employees.
B. It improves employee motivation and morale when it creates promotion opportunities or prevents layoffs.
C. It improves an organization’s return on its investment in the workforce.
D. It decreases the likelihood of the employee having accurate expectations from the organization.
E. C and D only.

16. The difference between succession planning and replacement planning is that succession planning
A. focuses on identifying a “backup” to fill a job when it becomes vacant.
B. focuses on past performance and demonstrating the skills necessary to perform the job.
C. emphasizes naming replacements.
D. anticipates changing organization needs.

17. The _____ rule is a limit used to determine whether or not there are serious discrepancies in hiring decisions and other employment practices affecting women or minorities.
A. 2/3rds
B. 50/20
C. 4/5ths
D. 90 percent

18. Generally, research in recruiting
A. validates newspaper advertising as consistently effective.
B. has not identified a single best source of recruitment.
C. confirms employee referrals as a poor source of recruitment.
D. discourages the use of self-initiated contacts for recruitment.

19. The forecasting method, _____, involves having each member of a panel of experts make an initially independent estimate of future demand, specifying the underlying assumptions. After an intermediary presents each forecast to the panel, each expert can revise his or her forecast. The process continues some consensus is reached.
A. managerial estimates
B. Delta technique
C. Friedman modeling
D. None of the above is correct.

20. A criterion predictor, such as a test, can be valid without being reliable.
A. True
B. False

21. The EEOC prohibits the content of help-wanted ads from indicating any race, sex, or age preference.
A. True
B. False

22. A layoff is synonymous with termination.
A. True
B. False


Week 3 Quiz

1. Research has more closely linked successful counseling to
A. training in industrial psychology.
B. preferring a task orientation rather than people orientation in managing.
C. similar characteristics that make people likable and effective.
D. the specialization achieved in the area by human resource managers.

2. A learning curve most frequently manifests as a
A. plateau curve.
B. linear positively sloped curve.
C. decreasing returns curve.
D. linear negatively sloped curve.

3. Performance management systems present a more powerful incentive for diligent work when linked to the
A. vendor contract negotiations.
B. unstated agenda of the hierarchy.
C. organizational reward system.
D. formal organization chart.

4. Training involving the handling of a specific manager’s mail and calls and reacting accordingly is termed
A. business simulation.
B. role playing.
C. in-basket technique.
D. incident method.

5. Which of the following is a myth held by employees related to career development and advancement?
A. Good subordinates do not make good superiors.
B. There is always room for one more person at the top.
C. A person, through careful design, can affect rather than merely accept the future.
D. The ultimate responsibility for career development and planning belongs to the individual.

6. Thomas had been consistently meeting all his deadlines and performance standards over the past year, except for the last six weeks, when he was struggling with health issues. Thomas’s manager turned in a poor performance appraisal based on his performance over the last month. Which of the following errors in performance appraisals does this case reflect?
A. Leniency
B. Central tendency
C. Halo effect
D. Recency
E. None of the answers above is correct.

7. Ideally, the human resource department should conduct a scheduled follow-up after the employee has been on the job for
A. a year.
B. a week.
C. a month.
D. six months.

8. Which of the following statements is true about career development versus career planning?
A. Career development is the process by which an individual formulates career goals and develops a plan for reaching those goals.
B. Career development looks at careers through the eyes of individual employees.
C. Career development and career planning should not reinforce each other.
D. Career planning looks at individual careers from the viewpoint of the organization.
E. None of the answers above is true.

9. A needs assessment helps determine those activities that can link management development with
A. sustained profitability.
B. stated objectives.
C. short-term financial needs.
D. lowered turnover.

10. Which of the following is a benefit the organization receives when employees engage in career self-management?
A. More highly skilled and flexible employees and the retention of these employees.
B. Human resources management costs are cut.
C. Managers are freed from the responsibility of career counseling.
D. The organization is no longer responsible for employees’ career paths.
E. All of the above answers are benefits the organization receives.

11. Which of the following is a major weakness of the graphic rating scale method?
A. The evaluator is generally not aware of the weights associated with each question.
B. The rater is required to jot down incidents regularly, which can be burdensome and time-consuming.
C. This method may lead to friction between the manager and employees when the employees believe the manager is keeping a “book” on them.
D. Evaluators are unlikely to interpret written descriptions in the same manner due to differences in background, experience, and personality.
E. None of the above answers is a major weakness.

12. The most popular method of gathering data in the OD process is
A. to review any available records that may be pertinent.
B. through individually interviewing employees regarding their opinions and perceptions.
C. by observing firsthand the behavior of organizational members at work.
D. through questionnaires filled out by employees.

13. The general principle behind reinforcement is that behavior that
A. does not appear to lead to positive consequences is not repeated.
B. does not appear to lead to a negative consequence is repeated.
C. appears to lead to a negative consequence is repeated.
D. appears to lead to a positive consequence is repeated.

14. Which of the following is true about dual-career couples vis-à-vis dual-employed couples?
A. They do not see their employment as an integral part of their self-definition.
B. One or both of the members defines his/her employment as relating to rewards such as money.
C. They view their employment as part of a career path involving progressively more responsibility, power, and financial remuneration.
D. One or both of the members defines his/her employment as relating to an opportunity to keep busy.
E. A and B only.

15. An employee’s lack of time or conflicting demands upon it, inadequate work facilities and equipment, restrictive policies that affect the job, lack of cooperation from others, type of supervision, temperature, lighting, noise, machine or equipment pacing, shifts, and even luck, are all examples of
A. environmental factors as performance obstacles.
B. the impact of appraisal systems on employee performance.
C. task perceptions as they relate to performance.
D. how the ability of the individual employee impacts performance.

16. At Veritas Systems, trainees fresh out of college go from one job to another within the organization, generally remaining in each job from six months to a year. This is an example of the method of management development termed ____.
A. special project
B. job rotation
C. role playing
D. in-basket technique

17. Management inventories and succession plans are
A. generally kept confidential.
B. maintained by the top management.
C. to be ignored in the determination of promotions.
D. designed to set the salary standards for employees at various levels in the organization.

18. Which of the following possibilities exists for an organization’s management team that wants to rehabilitate plateaued employees?
A. Refer them for employment at another organization.
B. Switch to positions at the same level that require exactly the same skills as the present job.
C. Assign plateauees to developmental programs designed to help them move into future jobs.
D. Provide alternative methods of recognition.
E. C and D only.

19. Orientations work best when presented
A. in one long session as soon as the new employee joins the organization.
B. after the employee has been on the job long enough to appreciate the sessions.
C. in sessions of a couple of hours over several days.
D. in sessions of a couple of hours at monthly intervals.
E. None of the above answers is correct.

20. Behavior evaluation is easier than the learning evaluation.
A. True
B. False

21. The focus of behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) and, to some extent, the graphic rating scale and checklist methods of performance appraisal is primarily on performance outcomes.
A. True
B. False

22. The evaluation phase of OD in effect repeats the diagnostic phase.
A. True
B. False


Week 4 Quiz

1. Which of the following is a potential use of job evaluations?
A. To provide a basis for a simple, variable wage structure.
B. To reduce pay grievances by reducing their scope.
C. To provide a means of comparing jobs and pay rates within the organization itself.
D. To provide an agreed-on means of classifying old jobs.

2. The Roth IRA
A. is offered by small businesses or even sole proprietors, which usually do not have any other retirement program.
B. was created by the Income Tax Assessment Act of 1997.
C. requires that the employer contribute up to 25 percent of an employee’s total salary, with a maximum of $49,000.
D. allows for nondeductible contributions and tax-free withdrawals with certain restrictions.
E. None of the above answers is correct.

3. A satisfied employee
A. is, by definition, a motivated employee.
B. is not necessarily motivated or productive.
C. will necessarily outproduce a nonsatisfied employee.
D. does not respond to or require motivation.

4. In a differential piece rate plan, the rate is raised
A. after a given number of pieces have been produced.
B. for each piece that exceeds standard quality.
C. when specifications of pieces produces changes.
D. for the top producer, who is paid a premium rate.

5. Garnishment of wages
A. can be used as grounds for dismissal of an employee.
B. is a requirement of the Equal Pay Act of 1963.
C. is among the more popular wage policies as rated by workers.
D. is a legal procedure by which an employer is empowered to withhold wages for payment of an employee’s debt to a creditor.
E. A and D only.

6. Which of the following employee benefits are (is) legally required?
A. Company-provided housing
B. State disability insurance
C. Interest-free loans
D. Stock bonus plans

7. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the factor comparison method of job evaluation?
A. It requires significant interaction and decision making by the different parties involved in conducting the job evaluations.
B. It is difficult to assign monetary values to jobs because of its qualitative nature.
C. It is brief and nonspecific.
D. It is not easily adapted to changes in the jobs being evaluated.

8. Which of the following is a major benefit of employee stock ownership plans to stockholders?
A. Provides a ready buyer for stock.
B. Allows use of pretax dollars to finance debt.
C. Can result in preferential consideration for a government-guaranteed loan.
D. Favorable tax treatment of lump-sum distribution, deferment of tax until distribution, and gift and estate tax exemptions.

9. Which of the following is true about pay grades and ranges?
A. One approach for establishing pay grades and ranges is to have a relatively large number of grades with identical rates of pay for all jobs within each grade.
B. The minimum of a pay grade’s range places a ceiling on the rate that can be paid.
C. The maximum of a pay grade’s range places a floor on the rate that can be paid to any employee whose job is classified in that grade.
D. In establishing pay grades and ranges, one method is to have a small number of grades with a relatively narrow dollar range for each grade.

10. An employee who receives a promotion also feels a sense of accomplishment. This exemplifies how
A. most organizations offer the same mix of rewards to all employees.
B. rewards have to be costly to be valued.
C. managers and employees consider only the tangible benefits associated with a reward.
D. an extrinsic reward often provides the recipient with intrinsic rewards.

11. Which of the following is the primary advantage of individual incentives as opposed to group or organizational incentives?
A. Greater total reward is assured.
B. It works especially well for those involved in team projects.
C. There is a clear relationship perceived between actions and rewards.
D. There is no need for confidentiality.

12. Which of the following is true about the employer-sponsored SIMPLE IRA plan?
A. SIMPLE IRA plans do not have to meet the nondiscrimination requirements, minimum participation/minimum coverage rules, and vesting rules applicable to other types of plans.
B. Employers making matching contributions must match employee contributions up to 7 percent of the employee’s compensation for the calendar year.
C. If an employer establishes a SIMPLE IRA plan, employees who received at least $2,000 in compensation during any prior tax years are eligible to participate for the current year.
D. An employer that establishes a SIMPLE IRA plan must make either matching contributions or elective contributions.

13. Which of the following is true about the total rewards approach?
A. The basic idea of total rewards is to consider just pay and benefits when developing a strategy to attract, motivate, and retain employees.
B. Its intent is to place more emphasis on lower-cost rewards and provide a flexible and broad array of rewards.
C. It is easy to quantify the adoption of the concept since many aspects of the concept have been around for a long time.
D. The idea is to be able to effectively engage a more comparable workforce.
E. None of the answers above is true.

14. Which of the following is true about self-directed work teams?
A. They are teams of employees that accomplish tasks within their area of responsibility with direct supervision.
B. They are relatively new in Europe and especially in Scandinavia.
C. They are well established in the United States.
D. Most companies that use such teams usually incorporate some type of group incentive pay based on the performance of the respective work teams.

15. Which of the following rewards is often provided but not related to performance?
A. Merit raise
B. Paid leave
C. Incentive pay
D. Bonus
E. All of the rewards above are related to performance.

16. Which of the following is true about group life insurance?
A. Presently, employers can provide a maximum of $50,000 worth of life insurance for an employee without the cost of the policy being considered as income to the individual.
B. Employees do not have the option to purchase more insurance.
C. Generally, the employer provides a minimum coverage, usually $5,000 to $10,000.
D. A physical examination is usually required for coverage.

17. In the _____ method of job evaluation, job subfactors are used to describe compensable factors in more detail.
A. job ranking
B. job classification
C. factor comparison
D. Taylor
E. None of the answers above is correct.

18. A technique that allows an executive to share in the increase of a company’s stock without putting up the money to buy stock via the exercise of options is called
A. a phantom stock plan.
B. a qualified stock option plan.
C. non-qualified options.
D. stock appreciation rights.

19. Which of the following is a requirement resulting from the Internal Revenue’s Code Section 125 and/or the Deficit Reduction Act (DEFRA) of 1984?
A. Taxable benefits allowed include dependent care assistance.
B. Employee benefits elections must be revocable.
C. No carryover of individual balances is allowed if the selected benefits are not fully used.
D. An employer requires an employee to complete more than three years of service before becoming eligible under the plan.
E. A and D only.

20. When a job decreases in attractiveness, the employee is more likely to be tardy, quit, or become dissatisfied with the job itself.
A. True
B. False

21. Even though not vested, an employee can still receive funds paid by the employer upon leaving the company.
A. True
B. False

22. The Scanlon plan technically is not a profit-sharing plan, but rather a plan that shares with employees measurable savings in labor and production costs.
A. True
B. False


Week 5 Quiz

1. Grievance procedures
A. are informal methods of resolving all manner of disputes in an organization.
B. outline specific steps for appealing actions taken by management that an employee feels are in violation of the union contract.
C. terminate when the dispute is decided by a third party neutral who acts as a judge.
D. are decided by an independent human resource staff committee.
E. None of the above.

2. When can a union make a direct request to the employer to become the bargaining agent of the employees?
A. When 25 percent of the employees sign authorization cards.
B. When the NLRB rejects a petition for an election.
C. When more than 50 percent of the employees sign authorization cards.
D. When all those employees who have signed the authorization cards want the employer to be the bargaining agent.
E. None of the above.

3. Which of the following is characteristic of employee assistance programs?
A. A growing number of large organizations and many smaller ones are attempting to help employees with problems, this help being purely altruistic.
B. The accepted viewpoint now is that employees’ personal problems are private until they begin affecting job performance.
C. Easy to measure, and a very real cost associated with troubled employees, is the loss of business and a damaged public image.
D. Organizations attempt to avoid employees’ problems that are not job related.
E. B and C only.

4. Which of the following statements is true regarding the free-speech clause included in the Taft–Hartley Act?
A. It gives employees the right to organize a union and bargain collectively with an employer.
B. It permits the employer to express its opinion in a mandatory employee meeting within 24 hours of the representation election.
C. It allows managers to join a labor union.
D. None of the above answers is true

5. When management makes its best offer at the outset of bargaining and firmly adheres to the offer throughout the bargaining sessions, it is known as
A. Gissel bargaining.
B. a recognition bar.
C. boulwarism.
D. a contract bar.

6. Regarding the duty of fair representation, which of the following statements is true?
A. Unions are not allowed to represent nonunion members.
B. An employee may not recover damages from the union in instances where the union did not defend the individual against contract violations.
C. Grievance procedures require representation by the union.
D. A union must make decisions as to the merits of particular grievances in good faith and arbitrarily.
E. C and D only.

7. What is the goal of the right-to-know rule?
A. To teach employees self-help techniques for individually reducing their own stress.
B. To identify those jobs with the highest potential for burnout.
C. To reduce the incidence of illness and injuries caused by chemicals.
D. To train supervisors to detect and refer problem employees for testing.

8. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Railway Labor Act?
A. It set up the administrative machinery for handling labor relations within the railroad industry.
B. It upheld the legality of yellow-dog contracts for railroad employees.
C. It covers railroad and airline employees.
D. The act was extended to the manufacturing industry in 1936.
E. A and C only.

9. Employees opposing unionization would likely cite any of the following reasons EXCEPT
A. political influence peddling.
B. misuse of union dues.
C. inadequacy of company management.
D. pressure to go along with union decisions.

10. Violent workplace incidents may be minimized by
A. suspending consequences for an employee’s first and second offenses.
B. screening out potential employees whose histories show antipathy to violence.
C. enlisting the aid of professionals, disregarding the cost.
D. adopting a “zero tolerance” policy as part of a plan for preventing violence.

11. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Norris–La Guardia Act?
A. It declared yellow-dog contracts legal.
B. The law did not require management to bargain with the union.
C. It promoted the use of injunctions.
D. It established administrative procedures to ensure implementation of employee rights to organize and bargain with employers.

12. In order to support disciplinary action, advance warning is not sufficient unless
A. the company rules are covered in orientation.
B. prior incidents can be presented as examples.
C. the employee is advised of the infraction.
D. notations placed in the employee’s record are utilized.

13. Which of the following statements is true regarding soliciting support for unions?
A. Support for a union can be solicited only during nonworking time.
B. Support for a union can be solicited only in nonwork areas.
C. Union literature can be distributed on company property in areas open to the public.
D. Management has no authority over the distribution of literature in nonwork areas.
E. A and C only.

14. Which of the following statements is true about arbitration?
A. Interest arbitration is not frequently used in the private sector.
B. It is most frequently used in the resolution of grievances during a contract period.
C. Under conventional interest arbitration, the arbitrator is restricted to selecting the final offer of one of the parties.
D. Interest arbitration is also known as collective arbitration.
E. A and B only.
F. C and D only.

15. Right-to-work laws
A. guarantee work to anyone willing to join a union.
B. were declared unconstitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court in 1980.
C. allow each state to decide whether to allow union shop arrangements.
D. are in effect in all 50 states.
E. None of the above.

16. Recent court rulings regarding employment at will
A. led to the passage of the Fair Employee Treatment Act.
B. have upheld an employer’s right to fire employees for any reason or no reason.
C. require employers to administer progressive discipline in all cases.
D. demonstrate that employers do need to have a good reason to fire someone.

17. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the common sources and suggested causes of job-related stress?
A. The requirements of the job may unnecessarily produce pacing problems, social isolation, and so forth, leading to fear and/or responsibility.
B. The threat of job loss is due to job demands skills or abilities that the employee does not possess.
C. Role overload occurs when the employee is incompetent at his/her job.
D. Conflicting expectations involve situations where the employee is uncertain or unclear about how to perform on the job.

18. A condition prohibiting an employer from hiring anyone other than a union member is called a
A. collective agreement.
B. lockout.
C. closed shop.
D. union shop.

19. The disciplinary process includes all of the following steps EXCEPT
A. negotiating employer/employee agreement on proper behavior.
B. communicating performance requirements and work rules.
C. applying corrective action.
D. establishing performance requirements and work rules.

20. Which of the following guidelines is suggested for implementing a drug-testing program?
A. Use monitored laboratories that employ non-blind testing to ensure the integrity of the testing procedures.
B. Make positive test scores a BFOQ where possible.
C. Assume employees are drug-free until proven otherwise.
D. Use any type of urinalysis, even the most mediocre method, as long as it gets done.

21. Under a(n) _____ provision, employees are not required to actually join the union, but they are required to pay a representation fee as a condition of employment.
A. union shop
B. agency shop
C. hot-cargo
D. closed shop

22. An employee has the right to refuse to submit to a disciplinary interview without the presence of a union representative.
A. True
B. False

Solutions (as a pdf) – $19.99

BUS401 Week 2 Assignment

Chapter 8 Mini Case
You have finally saved $10,000 and are ready to make your first investment. You have the three following alternatives for investing that money:

  • Capital Cities ABC, Inc. bonds with a par value of $1,000, that pays an 8.75 percent on its par value in interest, sells for $1,314, and matures in 12 years.
  • Southwest Bancorp preferred stock paying a dividend of $2.50 and selling for $25.50.
  • Emerson Electric common stock selling for $36.75, with a par value of $5. The stock recently paid a $1.32 dividend and the firm’s earnings per share has increased form $1.49 to $3.06 in the past five years. The firm expects to grow at the same rate for the foreseeable future.

Your required rates of return for each investment are 6 percent for the bond, 7 percent for the preferred stock, and 15 percent for the common stock. Using this information, answer the following questions.

a. Calculate the value of each investment based on your required rate of return.

b. Which investment would you select? Why?

c. Assume Emerson Electric’s managers expect an earnings downturn and a resulting decrease in growth of 3 percent. How does this affect your answers to parts a and b?

d. What required rates of return would make you indifferent to all three options?

Solution with equations and explanations (as a doc) – $11.99

BUS401 Week 1 Assignment

Problem 4-10

The annual sales for Salco Inc. were $4.5 million last year. The firm’s end-of-year balance sheet was as follows:


The firm’s income statement for the year was as follows:


a. Calculate Salco’s total asset turnover, operating profit margin, and operating return on assets.

b. Salco plans to renovate one of its plants, which will require an added investment in plant and equipment of $1 million.  The firm will maintain its present debt ratio of 0.5 when financing the new investment and expects sales to remain constant.  The operating profit margin will rise to 13 percent.  What will be the new operating return on assets for Salco after the plant’s renovation?

c. Given that the plant renovation in part b occurs and Salco’s interest expense rises by $50,000 per year, what will be the return earned on the common stockholders’ investment?  Compare this rate of return with that earned before the renovation?

Solution with equations and explanations (as a doc) – $5.99

BUS401 Week 1 Quiz & Week 2 Quiz

k12990601_financeWeek 1 Quiz

  1. Shareholder wealth maximization means
  2. PDQ Corp. has sales of $4,000,000; the firm’s cost of goods sold is $2,500,000; and its total operating expenses are $600,000. What is PDQ’s EBIT?
  3. Which of the following goals of the firm are synonymous (equivalent) to the maximization of shareholder wealth?
  4. The two principal sources of financing for corporations are
  5. If a corporation wants a guarantee that all of its shares of stock will be sold, it should use which of the following distribution methods?
  6. A financial manager is considering two projects, A and B. A is expected to add $2 million to profits this year while B is expected to add $2 million to profits this year while B is expected to add $1 million to profits this year. Which of the following statements is most correct?
  7. The goal of the firm should be
  8. PDQ Corp. has sales of $4,000,000; the firm’s cost of goods sold is $2,500,000; and its total operating expenses are $600,000. The firm’s interest expense is $250,000, and the corporate tax rate is 40%. What is PDQ’s net income?
  9. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning flotation costs?
  10. Which of the following would not normally be considered a “flotation cost?”

Week 2 Quiz

  1. Lily Co. paid a dividend of $5.25 on its common stock yesterday. The company’s dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate of 8.5% indefinitely. The required rate of return on this stock is 15.5%. You observe a market price of $78.50 for the stock. Should you purchase this stock?
  2. The relevant variable a financial manager uses to measure returns is:
  3. J. Corp. common stock paid $2.50 in dividends last year (D0). Dividends are expected to grow at a 12-percent annual rate forever. If H. J.’s current market price is $40.00, what is the stock’s expected rate of return (nearest .01 percent)?
  4. Assume that Brady Corp. has an issue of 18-year $1,000 par value bonds that pay 7% interest, annually. Further assume that today’s required rate of return on these bonds is 5%. How much would these bonds sell for today? Round off to the nearest $1.
  5. Bin Restaurant Corp preferred stock has a market price of $14.50. If it has a yearly dividend of $3.50, what is your expected rate of return if you purchase the stock at its market price?
  6. Halverson, Inc. just issued $1,000 par 20-year bonds. The bonds sold for $936 and pay interest semi-annually. Investors require a rate of 7.00% on the bonds. What is the amount of the semi-annual interest payment on the bonds?
  7. Billings, Inc. common stock has a beta of 1.2. If the expected risk free return is 4% and the expected market risk premium is 9%, what is the expected return on Billing’s stock?
  8. The capital asset pricing model
  9. A typical measure for the risk-free rate of return is the
  10. A financial advisor tells you that you can make your child a millionaire if you just start saving early. You decide to put an equal amount each year into an investment account that earns 7.5% interest per year, starting on the day your child is born. How much would you need to invest each year (rounded to the nearest dollar) to accumulate a million for your child by the time he is 35 years old? (Your last deposit will be made on his 34th birthday.)

Solutions (as a doc) – $6.99

MATH1113 Project 5

mathThe pressure P (in millimeters of mercury) against the walls of the blood vessels of a patient is modeled by P = 100 – 20 cos (8pi/3 * t) where t is time (in seconds).

  1. Use a graphing utility to graph the model.
  2. What is the period of the model? What does the period tell you about this situation?
  3. What is the amplitude of the model? What does it tell you about this situation?
  4. If one cycle of this model is equivalent to one heartbeat, what is the pulse of this patient?
  5. If the physician wants this patient’s rate to be 64 beats per minute or less what should the period be? What should the coefficient of t be?

Solution with equations and explanations (as a doc and xls) – $8.99

MATH1113 Project 3

mathA lab culture initially contains 500 bacteria. Two hours later, the number of bacteria has decreased to 200.

  1. Find the exponential decay model of the form P=Poekt      that can be used to approximate the number of bacteria after t hours.  (Here P is the bacteria population after t hours, Po is the initial population, and k is the rate of decay.
  2. How bacteria remains after 3 hours?
  3. How long does it take for the bacteria population to be reduced to only 21?

Solution with equations and explanations (as a doc) – $4.99

MATH1113 Project 1

mathSuppose that in calculating of the sales tax, we wanted the output to be the total cost of the piece of merchandise instead of just the tax.  Let C be the name of the cost function.  Use the sales tax rate that is in effect where you live.  (If you happen to live in a location with no sales tax, use 8%.)

  1. If you purchase a CD priced at $13.79, determine the total cost. Use functional notation to represent the cost.
  2. If you purchase an item costing $59.95, determine the total cost.  Use functional notation to represent the cost.
  3. If the price of an item is P dollars, describe in words how you calculate C (P), the cost of the item.
  4. Determine a formula for C(P). Simplify your formula as much as possible.

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ENG201 Week 1


Unit 1
Objective: Students will analyze the importance of Gilgamesh, one of the earliest known written works of literature.
Reading preparation: Read “Ancient Mediterranean and Near Eastern Literature” and The Epic of Gilgamesh
Discussion: Choose one event in Gilgamesh’s life and explain what lesson a modern reader may learn from Gilgamesh’s experience.

Unit 2
Objective: Students will analyze the importance of Gilgamesh, one of the earliest known written works of literature.
Reading preparation: Review the characteristics of epics discussed at the following websites.
Discussion:  Identify and discuss at least one characteristic of an epic that you noticed while reading Gilgamesh.  In your response, you may want to address the following:  Why is the characteristic important to the story?  How does it increase or decrease your understanding of events.

Two essays (259 words and 169 words) (as a doc) – $3.99

Please note, these essays are not original essays. For original essays, e-mail [email protected]

ENG201 Final Exam

world_litQuestion 1
In an essay of at least 300 words, compare and contrast one of the epic heroes from the first half of the class to one of the following epic heroes:  Roland, Sunjata, or Dante.  You should also discuss why you believe these similarities and/or differences exist.  Before you begin writing, you may want to think about the following:

  • What obstacles must they overcome?
  • What are their motivations?
  • Who supports them and why?
  • What are their weaknesses and strengths?
  • How do they interact with their families, their own people, and others?
  • Are they rewarded for their actions?  If so, with what?
  • Where were the works composed or written?  When? By whom? Why?

In your response, provide specific details from the textbook to strengthen your argument.  The textbook is the only source allowed on the exam.   You must use MLA Style in-text citations.

Question 2
In an essay of at least 300 words, compare and contrast the morals or virtues found in two readings we’ve discussed this quarter.

  • What were the primary morals or virtues in the readings?
  • Which virtues were considered good?  Why?
  • Which virtues were considered bad?  Why?
  • Which characters possessed these virtues?
  • What is your opinion on these virtues?

In your response, provide specific details from the textbook to strengthen your argument.  The textbook is the only source allowed on the exam.   You must use MLA Style in-text citations.

Two essays (451 words and 512 words) (as a doc) – $9.99

Please note, these essays are not original essays. For original essays, e-mail [email protected]